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Mcq

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Mcq

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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    Posts
  • February 13, 2018 at 11:57 am #436788
    imran5556
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    GG Co has a cost of equity of 25%. It has 4 million shares in issue, and has done for many years.
    Its dividend payments in the years 20X9 to 20Y3 were as follows.
    End of year Dividends
    $’000
    20X9 220
    20Y0 257
    20Y1 310
    20Y2 356
    20Y3 423
    Dividends are expected to continue to grow at the same average rate into the future.
    According to the dividend valuation model, what should be the share price at the start of 20Y4?
    $0.96
    $1.10
    $1.47
    $1.73 .

    Sir I have calculated dividend growth (220/423)to power 1/4_ 1 but they have taken opposite why sir

    February 13, 2018 at 3:33 pm #436853
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because it is growing from 220 up to 423, and we need the average growth rate each year.
    (20Y0 is the year after 20X9 – this may have caused the confusion, but in the real exam they will use proper years, not use X and Y’s 🙂 )

    February 13, 2018 at 4:16 pm #436872
    imran5556
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    You are right sir x and y confused me thank you very much sir best teacher of acca john sir….. No one can be like you sir never ever in this planet..

    February 14, 2018 at 9:28 am #437090
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Thank you for your comment 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
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