Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › MC=MR
- This topic has 7 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by John Moffat.
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- December 7, 2010 at 6:34 pm #46737
For maximum profit MC must equal to MR. Why this point is not explained in BPP Study text?Or tabular approach?
December 9, 2010 at 9:15 am #73288Is it possible to be tested?
December 9, 2010 at 11:23 am #73289Marginal Cost is the cost generated by producing one extra unit, and Marginal Revenue is the revenue generated from producing that one extra unit.
This means that beyond this point there will be no profit incurred, so this is the point just after which the company will seize to earn profits.
Hope this helped a bit,
And it’s a part of pricing techniques and is examinable. And hasn’t been asked before so better be careful about this one ….December 11, 2010 at 9:48 am #73290AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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can give me an exmaple to show the working?
thanksDecember 11, 2010 at 11:27 am #73291AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I agree that this theory has not been tested as yet and bpp does not cover this.
Pray that we will not be examined on this as it is not a common question.Think this or risk and uncertainty could come out.The latter the most likely.happy study 🙂December 11, 2010 at 3:00 pm #73292The best place to find an example of it is in the course notes that are free on this website (and watch my free lecture that goes with it).
December 11, 2010 at 9:15 pm #73293AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Thanks John will do that 🙂
December 12, 2010 at 3:51 pm #73294You are welcome.
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