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Market value per share formula

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Market value per share formula

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • March 31, 2023 at 10:39 pm #682110
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 303
    • Replies: 354
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello Sir

    regarding the formula Po=Do(1+expected rate of growth in dividends )/RE- expected rate of growth in dividends)

    In understanding the formula the upper part is clear that we calculate the dividends and its growth

    but the lower part what is the idea from deducting the expected growth in dividends from the required rate of return

    I mean what that will effectively influence the calculation.

    keeping in mind that is a perpetuity calculation .

    Thanks,

    April 1, 2023 at 8:13 am #682118
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54748
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    As I explain in my free lectures on this, the market value is the present value of the future expected dividends. When it is an inflating perpetuity we are effectively discounting at the real required rate of return (as discussed in the lectures on investment appraisal with inflation).
    If you are good at maths that it is not difficult to derive the formula yourself, but deriving it is not examinable in Paper FM which is why you are given the formula in the exam.

    April 1, 2023 at 12:45 pm #682133
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 303
    • Replies: 354
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Thanks Sir.

    April 1, 2023 at 6:10 pm #682139
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54748
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Market value per share formula’ is closed to new replies.

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