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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › market value of a company
the kaplan text says: market value of a co is the sum of PVs of its various forms of finance
we also know that MV can also be calculated as PV of future streams of dividends.
does this mean that both answers will be equal/same? ie will they give same MV?
PV of future dividends gives the market value of the equity, which is what is normally required as the market value of the company for F9.
