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Is anyone using a Kaplan revision kit and can help with question 148 and 149? I do not understand why while calculation the marker share variance we are using the operation variance principals. many thanks
I do not have the Kaplan Exam Kit – only the BPP Revision Kit – and so I cannot help you with the specific questions.
In general, the market share is something under the control of the company whereas the market size is outside the control of the company. So market share is like an operational variance, whereas market size is like a planning variance.
It may be they are the same questions (with different question numbers) that were in an earlier version of the Exam Kit, in which case my answer to a post several years ago may help you:
https://opentuition.com/topic/market-share-and-market-size-variances-kaplan-q137q138/
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