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When adding the cost of contribution as in the example in the free notes, we added the variable selling cost of 1$ that represents the variable cost of selling one unit. However what I don’t understand is why do we multiply the variable selling price by 9000 at a later stage if we already added it up to the cost of contribution? If we were to multiply it by 9000 which I understand, then we shouldn’t we have added it to the contribution? Or am I being thick here.
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