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Marengo Co 12/10

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Marengo Co 12/10

  • This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 5, 2015 at 6:41 am #265572
    muhanwar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    How N(-d1) was calculated from d1=-0.0552. BPP kit shows N(-d1)=0.5219 while my working shows N(-d1)=0.4761. I don’t get this point.

    What is the importance of the statement given in the question requirement that YOU MAY ASSUME THAT THE DELTA OF A PUT OPTION IS EQUIVALENT TO N(-d1). It was already negative then why it was given in the question requirement.

    Thanks

    August 5, 2015 at 7:30 am #265582
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    if D1 is negative (-0.0552), then -D1 is positive (- – 0.0552 = + 0.0552)

    You should remember from school that 2 negatives make a positive 🙂

    August 5, 2015 at 12:37 pm #265638
    muhanwar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Thanks but you answered half of my question.

    How -d1=0.0552 will produce N(-d1)=0.5219. while my answer is at 0.06 (0.0199+.5=0.5199)?
    Why examiner gave N(-d1) in question requirement? Is there any logic for this?

    August 5, 2015 at 12:59 pm #265643
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because i the normal distribution tables you can only go to 2 decimal places, BPP have copied what the examiner has done in his answer which is to apportion between 0.05 and 0.06 (on the basis that 0.055 is half way between them). So (0.0199 + 0.0239)/2 = 0.0219. Add 0.5 and we get 0.5219.
    It is a neat thing to do if you have the time, but you won’t lose marks by not bothering and doing what you did.

    With regard to giving N(-d1), it is because we are valuing a put option rather than a call option. It is provable but you cannot ever be expected to – if he wants you to do it then (as in this question) he will tell you to.

    August 5, 2015 at 1:39 pm #265651
    muhanwar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Thanks You sir

    August 6, 2015 at 7:15 am #265765
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    March 28, 2017 at 6:46 am #379406
    neilsolaris
    Member
    • Topics: 59
    • Replies: 415
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi,

    I’ve got a question regarding the Marengo question too.

    In the question in my study text, it states that this is a put option, because we’re worried the share price might fall, and subsequently we may assume that the delta option of a put option is equivalent to N(-d1).

    However, in your study notes, example 6 of chapter 13 (my notes might have different chapter numbers to yours, but it’s the delta hedge question) it seems to me to be the same scenario, i.e. we’re worried the share price might fall. However in this example we don’t use a negative d1.

    Why is that? Many thanks for your help.

    March 28, 2017 at 7:55 am #379414
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If we are worried that the share price may fall, then we either sell a call option (which is what is happening in the lecture example – and this is a normal delta hedge (for reasons I explain in the lecture), or alternatively we buy a put options.

    Buying a put option is not a normal delta hedge, but if the question tells you to in the exam then obviously you do 🙂

    March 28, 2017 at 10:58 am #379429
    neilsolaris
    Member
    • Topics: 59
    • Replies: 415
    • ☆☆☆

    Thanks very much for explaining that to me. I’ll need to watch your lecture again when I get home!

    March 28, 2017 at 5:19 pm #379473
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are very welcome 🙂

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Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • The topic ‘Marengo Co 12/10’ is closed to new replies.

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