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Mar/Jun 2016 Question 4 (a)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Mar/Jun 2016 Question 4 (a)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • March 18, 2018 at 8:32 pm #442972
    AvatarSaimon
    Participant
    • Topics: 123
    • Replies: 55
    • ☆☆

    question 4 (a)

    Sir,

    I didn’t understand how examiner have calculated value of “Pa”. Can you explain me how it has been calculated and why examiner have discounted ?????

    another thing why examiner didn’t discount exercise price “Pe”….”additional expenditure of $15m will incur in 3 year time “

    March 19, 2018 at 7:02 am #442996
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54845
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Pa is the value ‘now’ – i.e. the PV of the future flows.
    Since the NPV is zero (per the question), the PV of the future flows must be the same as the PV of the 15M din 3 years time.

    The exercise price is effectively being discounted – the part of the formula that multiplies Pe by e^(-rt) is there to discount, but on a continuous basis (and I do mention this in my free lectures).

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  • The topic ‘Mar/Jun 2016 Question 4 (a)’ is closed to new replies.

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