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Makonis Co (12/13) part c

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Makonis Co (12/13) part c

  • This topic has 11 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 12 posts - 1 through 12 (of 12 total)
  • Author
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  • August 7, 2016 at 5:30 pm #331837
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Hi John,

    Why in this question do we not consider the combined companies equity value which.

    The value of the combined company equity is 3669.90* 60%=2201.94

    2201.94/310m shares= 7.10 if this figure was used we would be paying more then 30% premium and just under the 50% so only the 50% will require cash.

    Please let me know why they used the 5.80 which is the value of the purchasing company equity before the combination?

    Kind Regards,

    August 8, 2016 at 8:26 am #331910
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If you are a shareholder in Nuvola, then the premium you will receive is the % excess over the current value of your shares.

    August 9, 2016 at 5:31 pm #332237
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Ahh Thank you John, I understand that but whats confusing is that in other questions, Im guessing done by the same examining team- Sigra Co (12/12) and Hav Co(6/13) both used the after combination values…..granted Hav Co does say it allows for both possibilities.

    If I had used the after combination value would i have gotten full marks for makonis co question?

    Thanks again.

    August 9, 2016 at 8:06 pm #332275
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It all depends on the wording – whether you are asked to look at it from the point of view of the shareholders in the company being acquired, or from the point of view of the company doing the acquiring.
    Having said that, you will still get credit if you have read it a different way 🙂

    August 17, 2016 at 5:14 pm #333806
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Thank you John,

    Just want to make sure my understanding is correct with this question if i did do it using the post acquisition value in terms of calculating.

    1:2 Share exchange

    Equity Value per share combined company: 2201.94/310=7.10

    7.10-4.80(2.40*2)=2.30
    2.30/2=1.15

    Strand Co Gain: 7.10-4.80/4.80=47.9%

    SO the premium per share is 480*0.30 =144/200=0.72

    If premium is 50% it will be 480*0.5 = 240/200= 1.20

    so it is only with a premium of 50% will the buyers have to pay extra cash

    August 18, 2016 at 6:10 am #333868
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You would get credit for this, but for full marks you would be expected to view it in the way that the examiner has done.

    August 24, 2016 at 4:23 pm #334935
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Thanks John,

    1) Just one last thing regarding what point of view to use, how would we know which point of view to use, this question was not clear

    2) Depending on the point of view which share value do you use, pre or post acquisition share values?, so if we are viewing it from the buyers point of view do we use the pre share value or post share value and then the opposite if we are viewing it from the sellers/company being purchased point of view?

    Kind Regards,

    August 25, 2016 at 7:25 am #335053
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What you have written is correct – if in the exam you are not sure from who’s point of view then state what you have assumed 🙂

    August 25, 2016 at 2:44 pm #335158
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Thank you John,

    Regarding my second question above what are the share values(pre or post) you would use for the different point of views(buyer and sellers)

    August 25, 2016 at 4:06 pm #335178
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sorry.

    If it is from the buyers point of view in terms of the most they can afford to offer, then you would use the post-acquisition value (because the buyer is likely to know forecasts as to what will happen after the acquisition).

    If you are looking from the sellers point of view (or if the buyer is trying to estimate the minimum that the sellers are likely to accept) then you would use the pre-acquisition value (because the sellers will not have the forecasts).

    August 25, 2016 at 10:44 pm #335208
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Perfect 🙂 thank you John

    August 26, 2016 at 6:47 am #335250
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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