Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Lupin (dec 2005) amended- tax benefit
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 months ago by Stephen Widberg.
- AuthorPosts
- April 25, 2024 at 8:05 am #704522
The scenario is:
“On 1 November 20X3, the company had granted ten million share options worth S40 million subject to a two-year vesting period. Local tax law allows a tax deduction at the exercise date of the intrinsic value of the options. The intrinsic value of the ten million share options at 31 October 20X4 was $16 million and at 31 October 20X5 was $46 million. The increase in the share price in the year to 31 October 20X5 could not be foreseen at 31 October 20X4.The options were exercised at 31 October 20X5. The directors are unsure how to account for deferred taxation on this transaction for the years ended 31 October 20X4 and 31 October 20X5.”
In the model answer there are statements that: “The deferred tax asset is $2.4 million (30% x 8). This is recognised at 31October 20X4 provided that taxable profit is available against which it can be utilised. Because the tax effect of the remuneration expense is greater than the tax benefit, the tax benefit is recognised in profit or loss.(The tax effect of the remuneration expense is 30% x $40 million / 2 = $6 million.)”
I do not understand the statement:” Because the tax effect of the remuneration expense is greater than the tax benefit, the tax benefit is recognised in profit or loss.”.? And if the tax effect of the remuneration expense is not lower than the tax benefit, the tax benefit should not be recognised in profit or loss?April 25, 2024 at 10:03 am #704529part (2) of the question give the scenario as followed: Lupin is leasing plant over a five-year period. A right-of-use asset was recorded at the present value of future lease payments of $12 million at the commencement of the lease which was 1 November 20Xl k The right-of-use asset is depreciated on a straight-line basis over the five years. The annual lease payments are $3 million payable in arrears on 31 October and the effective interest rate is 8% per annum. The directors have not leased an asset before and are unsure as to the treatment of leases for deferred taxation. The company can claim a tax deduction for the annual lease payments. (You should assume that the IAS 12 recognition exemption for assets and liabilities does not apply in this situation.)
I want to ask: How asset (ROU asset) and lease liability related to the lease can be offset to calculate temporary difference for tax purpose when depreciation and lease payment are both deducted to calcualte taxble income? Please advise me how to calculate taxable profit in this case?
April 26, 2024 at 9:05 am #704562DT on SBP
If SBP expense x tax rate is less than DT credit, excess DT goes to equity. Prize winner point.
DT on lease
Lease payment is used to calculate taxable income. Depreciation is not.
DT = tax rate x (CA of R of U asset minus CA of lease liability)PLEASE NOTE;
– 1 question per post
– Don’t copy and paste whole questions in
– Don’t forget my on line lectures🙂
April 27, 2024 at 6:47 am #704600“DT on lease
Lease payment is used to calculate taxable income. Depreciation is not.
DT = tax rate x (CA of R of U asset minus CA of lease liability)”
I know that formula, but I do not know how you can derive that formula: “DT = tax rate x (CA of R of U asset minus CA of lease liability)”. Can you help me to explain that?April 27, 2024 at 7:38 am #704603In most cases the temp difference (TD) is the same as the CA in the SoFP
Examples – provision of 100 means TD of 100, dev costs of 200 mean TD of 200.
For leases there are 2 CA – R of U asset and lease liability – so we offset them.
Best I can do.
🙂
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.