Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Lignum Co Dec 2012
- This topic has 4 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- October 26, 2014 at 10:33 am #206065
Hi
Please explain why it was a call option and not a put option (I used put option figures). We usually ask what contract currency we need and then divide to determine how many we going to buy or sell. This was not the case in this question. Please explain the assumption used where it states the cost need to be borrowed. Why?
October 26, 2014 at 3:29 pm #206088The question says that they are Euro options.
We will be receiving ZP’s so we will be selling ZP’s and buying Euros. So we need an option to buy Euros at a fixed rate, i.e. call options.
There is no contract size here because the are OTC. It is only with traded options where there are fixed size contracts.
The question does not say that the money will be borrowed, so as the answer says it is an assumption. You could have assumed that they already has the cash, in which case the interest rate would be different (the interest lost on the cash being used). Many times in P4 you have to make assumptions and provided you state your assumption and it is sensible then you still get full marks.
October 27, 2014 at 6:02 am #206159sir, why we need to calculate the opportunity cost of premium in this question? normally we just calculate the premium payable and added to the cost or deducted from the receipt right?
October 27, 2014 at 6:27 am #206166Thanks John for all your help..been really struggling with P4 prep
October 27, 2014 at 5:53 pm #206261jess: it is because the timing is different. The premium is payable immediately whereas everything else occurs at the date of the transaction. It is a minor point and is unlikely to cost many (if any) marks in the exam.
anisa: you are welcome 🙂
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