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Levante 12/11

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Levante 12/11

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • May 27, 2017 at 7:55 am #388384
    Avatarmansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 423
    • Replies: 541
    • ☆☆☆☆

    the following questions are more conceptual.

    1. when he says “issue new bond at a fixed 5% coupon, but at a premium or discount, whichever is appropriate to ensure full take up…”

    “full take up” actually means that when all the bonds are sold, we get the full amount, i.e. 150m in this case.
    Correct?

    2. assuming redemption at par, it gives an MV less than par, therefore there will not be full take up. correct?

    3. so, in this case to ensure full take up we will need to redeem at a premium so as to ensure that the MV is at least a 100 – since it says coupon of 5% is fixed. the only thing left to play with is the redemption. correct?

    side note:

    at first i took ‘full take up’ to mean whether the investors will buy ALL of the bonds. and that got me thinking: if i have a choice of buying a bond at 88 or a bond at 103, which one wd i buy?

    can u shed some light on this please.

    regards

    May 27, 2017 at 8:39 am #388399
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54845
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    1. Correct 🙂

    2. In this case, correct 🙂

    3. Correct 🙂

    Which you will buy depends on the yield you will get.
    If the bond at 88 was going to give you a yield of 10% but the bond at 103 was only going to give you a yield of 8%, then you prefer the one at 88 (and vice versa).

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