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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Leases- Capitalise asset at FV or PV of minimum lease payment?
Hi Mike,
This is the question: I am pretty sure there is an error somewere… am I missing something?
JJ enters into a four year finance lease on an item of plant. The contract starts on 1 January 20X4 with the first payment of £200,000 being made on that date. The final payment is on 1 January 20X8. The fair value of the plant is $885,160. The interest rate implicit in the lease is 6.5% and JJ’s reporting date is 31 December.
Complete the following balance carried forward for 31st of dec x4.
Solution
31st Dec x4
BFWD- 800,000
Less payment (200,000)
total= 600,000
then * interest rate – 6.5%
=39,000
the solution seems to suggest the BFWD is the FV figure of 885,160.
how is this so when it should be the lowest of the payments (200,000*4) and the fv?
Am I missing silly here?
This looks to me like 5 payments of $200,000
1 January 2004
1 January 2005
1 January 2006
1 January 2007
1 January 2008
When in doubt, use your fingers!
To coin a phrase, let your fingers do the counting
oo wow. yes you are right. Such small things.. can cause issues in an exam. Its always things to do with dates and time apportionment with f7!!! I am worried ;-(
thanks Mike
I think I would be worried anyway … what on Earth is the poor lessee doing leasing an asset for 4 years and then having to pay $200,000 on the day after the lease finishes?
Crazy!
