Lease

Dear Sir,
I have a question want to ask you about lease accounting. This is the question number 183 on the BPP Revision Kit (up to June 2018). Below is the question:

On 1 April 20X7, Fino increased the operating capacity of its plant. On the recommendation of the finance director, Fino entered into an agreement to lease the plant from the manufacturer. The initial measurement of the lease liability is $350,000. The lease required four annual payments in advance of $100,000 each commencing on 1 April 20X7. The
rate of interest implicit in the lease is 10%. The lease does not transfer ownership of the plant to Fino by the end of the lease term and there is no purchase option available.

The finance director questions why the lease payments cannot be simply charged to profit or loss. Which TWO of the following, if true, would indicate that this was the correct treatment?
(i) Ownership is transferred at the end of the lease term.
(ii) The lease is for less than 12 months.
(iii) The asset has a low underlying value.
(iv) The asset has been specially adapted for the use of the lessee.
A (i) and (ii)
B (ii) and (iii)
C (iii) and (iv)
D (i) and (iv)

The answer of BPP is B. But I thought that D should be the answer because the finance director would metion when lease payment cannon charge to P/L and with B the lease payment can chagre to P/L.

Please help me to answer this question!
Thank you so much!