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When we have labour hrs paid n labour hrs worked…means their is ideal time…
But for labour rate variance what labour hrs should be multiplied by the standard rate?
The actual hours that were paid.
But Kaplan text book shows
Actual hrs paid *actual labour rate
Actual hrs worked *standard labour rate…
So am confused
What you have quoted from the Kaplan book is not the rate variance.
The labour rate variance is the actual hours paid at actual rate, compared with actual hours paid at standard pay rate.
Do watch my lectures on idle time variances.