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Kingtim Co. (sample paper 2020)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Kingtim Co. (sample paper 2020)

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 11, 2021 at 10:12 am #610020
    joannsusan97
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    Hello sir, this may be a silly doubt..In appendix 2 ie. calculating yield to maturity of new bonds. Between the years 1-4, im not getting the answer 5.63 as mentioned (interest post tax). Can you tell me how to get the figure?

    February 11, 2021 at 3:40 pm #610060
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54674
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I do not know where you are finding 5.63 in the answer.

    The answer has it as 4.76% and it is arrived at by calculating the IRR of the post tax flows in the normal way. The two guesses that the examiner has used are 3% and 5%, but you could use any two guesses (with different guesses you get slightly different answers, but that is not a problem in the exam).

    February 11, 2021 at 7:55 pm #610083
    joannsusan97
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    Sir its mentioned before the percentage (3 & 5) columns within the table itself

    February 12, 2021 at 7:04 am #610101
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54674
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I have found it 🙂

    It is the after-tax interest paid each year. The coupon rate is 7.5% and the tax saving on the interest is 25%. So the after tax interest cost is 75% x 7.5% = 5.625

    February 13, 2021 at 7:20 am #610197
    joannsusan97
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    I want to clarify this part with you..normally when yield to maturity is being calculated, isnt it only interest? There are solutions ive seen using only the coupon rate and its how ive learnt so far. Any indication as to when to use interest post tax in the table?

    February 13, 2021 at 9:41 am #610218
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54674
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No. The yield to maturity is the overall return to investors.

    If the debt is irredeemable then it is the coupon rate divided by the market value.

    If the debt is redeemable then it is the IRR of the interest and redemption flows.

    The examiner was wrong to head the workings as the yield to maturity. The workings are calculating the cost of debt and so we need the IRR of the after tax flows.

    All of this is explained in my free lectures and it would be worth your while watching the Paper FM (was F9) lectures on the valuation of securities and on the cost of capital (because this is all revision from Paper FM).

    February 13, 2021 at 10:10 am #610219
    joannsusan97
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    Alright…so whenever im asked to calculate Kd using IRR approach, i should always use interest post tax yes?

    February 14, 2021 at 8:38 am #610309
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54674
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cost of debt is always post-tax.

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Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • The topic ‘Kingtim Co. (sample paper 2020)’ is closed to new replies.

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