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kd white

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › kd white

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • March 28, 2016 at 6:32 pm #308509
    Avatarjosy87
    Member
    • Topics: 172
    • Replies: 215
    • ☆☆☆

    White plc is financed by 400,000 $1 ordinary shares and $600,000 12% debentures. The market values are $1.40 ex div and $90% respectively. A dividend of 14c has just been paid and dividends have been growing at 6% p.a. Interest is shortly to be paid on the debentures which are redeemable at a 5% premium in 6 years time.

    sir Kd, where 78 is coming from? I use 90 as the question said $90’%
    thanks

    March 29, 2016 at 6:55 am #308540
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Member
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The debentures are cum int (because the interest is about to be paid).

    The ex int value = 90 – 12 = 78.

    March 29, 2016 at 9:03 am #308561
    Avatarjosy87
    Member
    • Topics: 172
    • Replies: 215
    • ☆☆☆

    Ok thanks

    March 29, 2016 at 9:08 am #308567
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Member
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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