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Katmai

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Katmai

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 24, 2017 at 1:12 pm #369287
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Good Evening Sir!

    i have gone thru all the previous posts on this question but my questions r rather basic:

    1. what is a vanilla swap?
    2. the 10 year rates available are 5.25-5.4. do these refer to lending and borrowing respectively?

    regards.

    January 24, 2017 at 2:16 pm #369302
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54691
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    A vanilla swap is what we normally think of with swaps for P4 – where floating interest is swapped for fixed interest.

    The lower rate is the interest rate given on deposits, the higher rate is the interest rate charged on borrowings.

    January 24, 2017 at 2:24 pm #369303
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    thank u

    January 24, 2017 at 7:03 pm #369359
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54691
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    January 29, 2017 at 3:05 pm #370135
    numera
    Member
    • Topics: 30
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆☆

    hi sir,

    sorry if ive missed thos obvious point.

    but could you point out as to where this figure came from :-

    part b) payments= libor/2 +0.6%

    where is 0.6 coming from?

    also one last question on this one, whilst calculating the effective annual interest rate , arithmetically rather than putting the figures in the formula , can we just double the interest rate for 6 months which is 3.30% X 2 = which also gives 6.7%?

    thanks alot.

    January 29, 2017 at 3:29 pm #370139
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    i know this is not my place to answer but the 0.6 is given in the question

    ” as 120 basis points above LIBOR”

    so 6-monthly = L/2 + 120/2 = L/2 + .6

    January 29, 2017 at 3:32 pm #370140
    numera
    Member
    • Topics: 30
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆☆

    ohhh so basically 120 basis points was divided by 2 for 6 months.

    ok thanks Mr Mansoor

    January 29, 2017 at 4:58 pm #370156
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54691
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Thanks Mansoor (although please don’t make a habit of answering in this forum 🙂 )

  • Author
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