Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Katmai
- This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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- January 24, 2017 at 1:12 pm #369287
Good Evening Sir!
i have gone thru all the previous posts on this question but my questions r rather basic:
1. what is a vanilla swap?
2. the 10 year rates available are 5.25-5.4. do these refer to lending and borrowing respectively?regards.
January 24, 2017 at 2:16 pm #369302A vanilla swap is what we normally think of with swaps for P4 – where floating interest is swapped for fixed interest.
The lower rate is the interest rate given on deposits, the higher rate is the interest rate charged on borrowings.
January 24, 2017 at 2:24 pm #369303thank u
January 24, 2017 at 7:03 pm #369359You are welcome 🙂
January 29, 2017 at 3:05 pm #370135hi sir,
sorry if ive missed thos obvious point.
but could you point out as to where this figure came from :-
part b) payments= libor/2 +0.6%
where is 0.6 coming from?
also one last question on this one, whilst calculating the effective annual interest rate , arithmetically rather than putting the figures in the formula , can we just double the interest rate for 6 months which is 3.30% X 2 = which also gives 6.7%?
thanks alot.
January 29, 2017 at 3:29 pm #370139i know this is not my place to answer but the 0.6 is given in the question
” as 120 basis points above LIBOR”
so 6-monthly = L/2 + 120/2 = L/2 + .6
January 29, 2017 at 3:32 pm #370140ohhh so basically 120 basis points was divided by 2 for 6 months.
ok thanks Mr Mansoor
January 29, 2017 at 4:58 pm #370156Thanks Mansoor (although please don’t make a habit of answering in this forum 🙂 )
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