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kaplan textbook

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › kaplan textbook

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 27, 2019 at 11:51 am #521412
    Avatartoushiga
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 171
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello Sir, for Kaplan textbook chapter 3 international operation and international investment appraisal
    TYU 6 -exam standard questions
    Foreign NPV-Puxty Co

    why the production cost is sales revenue / 2.5, not 1.5 as the markup is 150%.Thank you.

    June 27, 2019 at 12:41 pm #521416
    Avatartoushiga
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 171
    • ☆☆☆☆

    and why the year 0 rental charged do not attached any tax and the loss not carried forward to year 1 and to year 2?
    Thank you.

    June 27, 2019 at 12:51 pm #521419
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am sorry but I do not have the Kaplan textbook and so I cannot help you.

    June 27, 2019 at 12:55 pm #521420
    Avatartoushiga
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 171
    • ☆☆☆☆

    its same with this question
    https://opentuition.com/topic/p4-question-puxty-plc/

    June 27, 2019 at 3:59 pm #521427
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It may well be the same question, but those posts were in 2013.

    In 2013 I did have the Kaplan text, but I certainly do not have it now and so I have no idea at all about the question! Sorry.

    June 28, 2019 at 7:04 am #521451
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Mark-up is the profit as a % of cost.
    For every 100 cost, the profit is 150, and therefore the revenue is 250.

    Therefore for every 250 revenue the cost is 100, so in total 100/250 x revenue.

    June 28, 2019 at 7:09 am #521452
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There is no such thing as ‘year 0’. Time 0 is a point in time and is the start of the first year. The taxable profit is calculated at the end of the year and if you look at the tax workings, the rent is subtracted in arriving at the taxable profit at time 1. Since it is actually a loss, the loss is carried forward and subtracted from the profit at time 2.

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