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jupitet co (12/08)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › jupitet co (12/08)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • November 8, 2014 at 12:49 pm #208400
    student07
    Member
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir sorry to be pain again
    Wanted to know in part (a)
    Why is market value of debt calculated different way like 5.6/1.0465,+5.6/1.0465^2 ——- =103.4%
    Thanks

    November 8, 2014 at 6:14 pm #208460
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am not sure why you say ‘a different way’?

    The market value of debt is always the present value of the future receipts discounted at the required return. I would have used annuity factors from the tables at 5% (because the tables do not have 4.65%) and the examiner accepts that, even though the answer doing that will be only approximate.

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