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June 2016 Sect B question 3 –

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2016 Sect B question 3 –

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • September 8, 2016 at 9:06 am #338961
    arvi1988
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    Trust you are well.

    I wanted just a small clarification for the answers regarding the June 2016 exams section B question No 3

    i have been able to find the all the answers except for the 2nd paragraph below.

    “If share prices increase by 4% per year, the share price in seven years’ time will be $8·55 per share ($6·50 x 1·047) and the conversion value will be $940 per loan note ($8·55 x 110).
    This conversion value is less than the nominal value of $1,000 per loan note and less than the expected market value of $990·82 per loan note at the end of seven years (0·926 x $1,070). On financial grounds, holders of the loan notes are likely to hold them until redemption after eight years.”

    I thought the expected market value should have been the following after 7 years :

    1-7yrs Interest 70 * 5.206 (df@ 8% as per the question) = 364.4
    7 Redemption 1000* 0.583 = 583

    Total of $ 947.4

    But why did the examiner used (1070 * 0.926 ) for expected market values after 7 years ??

    Thank you

    September 8, 2016 at 11:30 am #339008
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What you have calculated is the MV now (assuming they did not convert).

    However, since the option to convert is in 7 years time, we need to know what the MV will be in 7 years time. In 7 years time, if they chose not to convert they would be expecting 1,070 one year later (at time 8) and therefore the MV at time 7 will be 1070 discounted for one year.

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