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june 2015 ,4 no question

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › june 2015 ,4 no question

  • This topic has 14 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 15 posts - 1 through 15 (of 15 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 10, 2015 at 5:42 am #255862
    jonyrazib
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆

    SIR
    I have answered the question this way, revised share 24m

    Profit before tax (8400/70*100)=12000
    Decrease in interest(11200/31200*2.4)=864
    Taxable profit (12000+864)=12864
    Profit after tax(12864*.7)=9005

    so revised EPS=9005000/24m= .38

    after seeing your answer feeling cry . i dont know what have i done!! sir will i get a few number?

    June 10, 2015 at 8:00 am #255893
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Although I disagree with the amount of the decrease in the interest, your approach is fine otherwise – how you set out the workings does not matter.

    You will certainly get some marks.

    June 10, 2015 at 8:08 am #255898
    jonyrazib
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆

    okay sir!!
    But my question is EPS reduced because shares increased but profit has not increased much so , cant we say that shareholders wealth decreased?

    June 10, 2015 at 10:12 am #255927
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    First, profit available for shareholders will increase because there is less interest payable.

    Second, although there are more shares in issue, the shareholders will have more shares than before.

    (Remember, that a rights issue on its own has no affect on the overall shareholders wealth. What will affect it is what the company does with the money raised – in this case they are using it to reduce the interest that is payable and hence increase the profits.)

    June 10, 2015 at 12:37 pm #255988
    jonyrazib
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆

    wow!! okay!! thank u!

    June 10, 2015 at 4:10 pm #256065
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    June 10, 2015 at 4:42 pm #256101
    mosaddeque
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Dear Mr. John Moffat
    I have also tried to solve in a different way. Before rights issue no. of shares were 20 million…. which increased to 24million. (1 for 5 rights issue.)P/E ratio before rights issue were 8.33 (current market value of $3.5 per share / EPS of $0.42 per share). After rights issue I asuumed the total earnings will remain unchanged i.e.$ 8400,000.(as this is the current earnings and we are determining the immediate effect). So the revised EPS is $0.35 per share ($8400,000/24 million). As the market price of the share is EPS * P/E ratio and the P/E ratio is unchanged so revised market price is $2.96 per share(0.35 * 8.33). Comparing this with the theoretical ex- rights price of $3.38 per share ((5 * 3.5 + 1 * 2.8)/6) this is a net capital loss of $0.42 per share (3.38 – 2.96) .

    Dear Sir…..
    what do you think about my answer 🙂

    June 10, 2015 at 4:50 pm #256105
    Gvtftf
    Member
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 698
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Mosaddegue, i think you messed the thing a little bit, earnings are not the same, you should have found the earnings after saving in interest

    June 10, 2015 at 4:55 pm #256107
    mosaddeque
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    yes……. i am also thinking so now..

    June 10, 2015 at 5:18 pm #256114
    Gvtftf
    Member
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 698
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Seems we both used bpp approach 😀 with some mistakes though

    June 10, 2015 at 5:21 pm #256115
    mosaddeque
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    yeah…….. with some mistakes for sure……. 😀

    June 11, 2015 at 7:33 am #256255
    bsmith1971
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi John

    Thank you for uploading your suggested answers.

    Regarding question 4, I deducted the 280k issue costs from the $11.2m had $1,092,000 to buy back the loan notes, will I still get some marks?

    Many thanks

    June 11, 2015 at 8:08 am #256273
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, certainly. I am not the marker but I would be surprised if it lost you more than one mark (assuming that you were doing everything else correctly).

    June 11, 2015 at 12:44 pm #256351
    mosaddeque
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Mr. John Moffat

    Would you kindly give any opinoin about my answer? I am eagerly seeking for your comments….. sir

    June 11, 2015 at 2:22 pm #256379
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The main point about the question is that the earnings will change because the loan notes are being repaid and therefore there is less interest to pay.

    It is impossible for me to say how many marks you will lose.

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