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June 2013 Q#4

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2013 Q#4

  • This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 28, 2017 at 9:22 pm #418745
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    Sir ,
    I have been through your lectures but I am struggling with the solution to part B and C of the question.

    can u plz guide me to the solution to these parts.

    Thank you

    November 29, 2017 at 11:07 am #418839
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are going to have to be more specific as to which bits of the examiners answer you are not clear about (otherwise I would really only be effectively copying out the answer, which would be a bit pointless 🙂 )

    You will know from my lectures what we mean by the earnings per share and by the interest cover, and it is therefore effectively preparing a profit statement for each of the two options.

    November 29, 2017 at 11:11 am #418843
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    I am I think struggling with starting that question in the way I have learned from ur lectures, beside that from where the 8% is used in the question?

    November 29, 2017 at 12:00 pm #418860
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There is no 8% !!

    The question says that the funds invested will earn a before tax-return of 18%.
    Therefore the profit (before tax) will increase by 18% of the funds raised under each option (which you should have no problem with).
    Since there is tax at 20%, then the increase in profit after tax will be 80% of the before tax increase. Under option 2 there is no extra interest to pay, so you can then get the total profits available for shareholders and then the earnings per share.

    Under option 3, again the profits will go up by 18% of the funds invested. However there will be more interest payable (because they issued bonds). So now you can calculate the new total profit after interest. Take 80% of it (because of tax at 20%) and you have the new profit after tax. Divide by the number of shares and you have the earnings per share.

    This is all covered in my lectures (although is more basic financial accounts than financial management 🙂 )

    November 29, 2017 at 12:11 pm #418865
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    At the time of calculating increase in after tax income in part b the examiner has multiplied by 0.8!

    November 29, 2017 at 12:24 pm #418869
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    I must admit one thing the way u solve out the questions is far more easy way then it’s mentioned in the examiner’s answers.

    Thank you for making things easy 🙂

    November 29, 2017 at 5:30 pm #418931
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    But multiplying by 0.8 is the same as taking 80% of the figure (not 8%) !! 🙂

    I think from what you have written that you are now OK with the answer. If you are, then great 🙂

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Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • The topic ‘June 2013 Q#4’ is closed to new replies.

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