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June 2013 Q2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › June 2013 Q2

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • November 9, 2014 at 4:48 am #208513
    takeshi
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 14
    • ☆

    question 2 (b), the premium under Strand Co’s opinion,using EVA=NOPAT-(WACC*capital employed). But the answer uses pre-tax profit instead of NOPAT,why?
    (C),convertible bond would be converted into 12 shares in six years,the share price is $100/12=$8.33,but why it doesn’t apply current share price of $9.24 of Hav Co?
    Many thanks!!!

    November 9, 2014 at 1:21 pm #208584
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54682
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    First question:

    The question gives the pre-tax return on capital, and so the answer uses the pre-tax earnings, subtracts the pre-tax ROCE, and then subtracts tax on the excess.

    Second question:

    The answer does explain this. Since the choice is to take $100 cash or 12 shares , this would give a value of $8.33 per share. However (as the answers does make clear) the share price will probably have in increased by the date of the conversion and be above $8.33.

    November 10, 2014 at 7:58 am #208739
    takeshi
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 14
    • ☆

    Thank you,John!

    November 10, 2014 at 10:08 am #208771
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54682
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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