Skip to content

Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

June 2013 exam Q1

Ppillekesekene12y ago
Hi, I have a question regarding June 2013 exam question 1. In the answers, when calculating Mlima Co value without Bahari project, it is shown that PV after four years is 656,9x0,659=432,7. Why it is discounted as these where fourth year cash flows? thank you
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor12y ago#1
The flows that you are looking at are the flows from 4 years onwards. These have a value of 656.9 in 4 years time (using the dividend growth formula to deal with an inflating perpetuity). Since it is a value in 4 years time, it needs discounting by 4 years to get a PV now. This is then added to the PV of the flows for the first four years.
Sign in to reply to this topic.