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June 2011 Past Paper

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › June 2011 Past Paper

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by louis531.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 10, 2017 at 6:30 am #401268
    louis531
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,

    I have a question regarding Q1.

    It says : A local engineering firm has quoted a flat price of $200 per warranty service repair.

    So it is the M/S or Service division going to pay for the $200 per unit? If it is Service division going to pay, then it should be a cost to Service division isn’t? Why it appear as Revenue on the answer? I am very confused on this.

    Thank you in advance.

    August 11, 2017 at 8:11 pm #401548
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10648
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The $200 quoted by the local engineering firm is an indication of the market-price based transfer price.

    Currently the service division earns a fixed $10m from warranty work.

    There are 440,000 x 9% = 39,600 warranty claims and if the service division were to charge the market price it would earn $200 x 39,600 = $7,920,000 only (see answer appendix). The service division can still make a profit (though reduced) and the profit will provide motivation to still do this work.

    However, as the answer makes clear, a reduced market price might be fairer to M/S (because of cost savings if the work is done internally).

    The service division can decide whether to do the work itself (incurring its variable costs) or if it should sub-contract the work to free up resources to carry out more profitable work.

    August 12, 2017 at 7:30 pm #401627
    louis531
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,

    Your explanation is straight and sharp.
    I can’t thank you enough.

    Appreciate.

  • Author
    Posts
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  • The topic ‘June 2011 Past Paper’ is closed to new replies.

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