n june 11 ques 4 part ii of section a ,the procedure for money market hedge if the company has to make a payment is: to borrow in home currency nd then convert using spot rate and then deposit in foreign currency accnt but in the mark scheme can u please explain wht they have done .im following the steps from the bpp but i dont understand. please help thanks alot
If you want me to answer then you must ask in the Ask the Tutor Forum.
But also confirm that you have watched my free lecture on this website – I have no idea what steps BPP go through, but the steps I go through in my lecture are correct.
(Our lectures are a complete course for Paper F9 and cover everything that you need to pass the exam well.)