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june 16 q-1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › june 16 q-1

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 10, 2016 at 11:31 pm #322255
    dipamit
    Member
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    hi, a query in today”s paper that if the subsidy is given by home country not where u thinking to establish plant ,is that apv? and do we need to do net of tax in home country?

    June 11, 2016 at 7:59 am #322310
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I have obviously not seen the exam, but from what you have written it would seem that the answer to both questions is ‘yes’ 🙂

    June 11, 2016 at 9:06 am #322323
    stacky
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 27
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    The question was something like,
    A US company need to set up a manufacturing base in a foreign country, which uses currency Dinar (For example)

    the international world bank promises a USD loan for all the capital expenditure and initial working capital requirements, at a 2 % rate (The company’s normal borrowing is at 5%)

    The problem is : The project needs for example 1.2m Dinar for capex and 0.4m for working capital (random figures), but the capex only need immediate funding of for example 60% , balance 40% at beginning of year 2.

    My question is:

    1) Do my debt capacity = 1.6m Dinars from the start? I answer it based on actual funding taken, means my initial debt capacity is only the fund i need, then the debt capacity increases by the balance in year 2 onwards.

    Any chance my assumption will be accepted? I start to think that i should have started with everything as my debt capacity T.T

    2) Since the capex funds requirements is 60% immediately, balance 40% at beginning of y2, how does it looks like during our NPV computation?

    I did 60% in Y0 and 40% in Y2, but i have been reading alot of comments on actually it refers to cash outflows in Y0 and Y1. If this part is wrong, means my capital allowances computations are also wrong, because my 40% additional capex is delayed by 1 year

    T.T

    June 12, 2016 at 7:54 am #322490
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I can’t really comment much without seeing the actual question.
    The ACCA will be publishing some of the answers in the next few weeks anyway.

    You get credit for each of your working and your approach separately, so don’t worry about it now.

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