Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › June 14 q3
- This topic has 8 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 18, 2014 at 1:25 pm #211002
Hello John,
In calculation of selling off assets in department C.
C receives cash 4.81m.
But then who gets 10% share of profits?November 18, 2014 at 4:21 pm #211044Maybe I am too tired, but I don’t understand you. Where do you get your 10% from?
November 18, 2014 at 8:41 pm #211110it is just above other information where is table of share of PBDIT and pre-tax profit for department C
November 19, 2014 at 12:14 pm #211256Is this share of profits included in current assets value?
Its confusing because in cash flows they include their share of profits.November 19, 2014 at 6:16 pm #211349Sorry – I have found it now 🙂
It because 10% of B’s PBIT comes from C (note (vI). It is assumed that in future this will be lost.
November 19, 2014 at 8:33 pm #211421Well inter company trading is ignored. Value of C department is just MV of assets. But what about department A? Doesn’t it create any value to Vogel?
November 20, 2014 at 4:05 pm #211638Yes of course. The new value has been calculated by multiplying the new after-tax earnings by the PE ratio.
The new after-tax earnings are those of Vogel plus those of A plus the synergy benefits.November 20, 2014 at 6:16 pm #211714Now its clear. Very messy question, lots of small details to miss. Thank you for your patience 🙂
November 21, 2014 at 12:05 pm #211858You are welcome 🙂
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