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Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

June 14 q3

Kkarmuks11y ago
Hello John, In calculation of selling off assets in department C. C receives cash 4.81m. But then who gets 10% share of profits?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
Maybe I am too tired, but I don't understand you. Where do you get your 10% from?
Kkarmuks11y ago#2
it is just above other information where is table of share of PBDIT and pre-tax profit for department C
Kkarmuks11y ago#3
Is this share of profits included in current assets value? Its confusing because in cash flows they include their share of profits.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#4
Sorry - I have found it now :-) It because 10% of B's PBIT comes from C (note (vI). It is assumed that in future this will be lost.
Kkarmuks11y ago#5
Well inter company trading is ignored. Value of C department is just MV of assets. But what about department A? Doesn't it create any value to Vogel?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#6
Yes of course. The new value has been calculated by multiplying the new after-tax earnings by the PE ratio. The new after-tax earnings are those of Vogel plus those of A plus the synergy benefits.
Kkarmuks11y ago#7
Now its clear. Very messy question, lots of small details to miss. Thank you for your patience :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#8
You are welcome :-)
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