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June 13 question 1."trailer"

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › June 13 question 1."trailer"

  • This topic has 27 replies, 8 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 25 posts - 1 through 25 (of 28 total)
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  • October 27, 2014 at 9:30 am #206193
    Abi
    Member
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    Hi sir regarding this question requirement number 3 about the impairment of goodwill,why does the answer take 40% of the 167 remaining impairment for NCI?i thought we only TAKE some of the impairment for nci if we use the fair value of NCI method?in this question we were told to use the proportionate net asset method to vAlue NCI

    October 27, 2014 at 9:41 am #206194
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, but that’s for goodwill. The entire goodwill impairment goes against the parent but the excess impairment is allocated 60 / 40

    OK?

    October 28, 2014 at 2:27 pm #206405
    Abi
    Member
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    Oh okay so it doesnt matter if you use the fairvalue or proportionate net asset method to value NCI you must always charge the remaining impairment to NCI and other Assets after charging a % to goodwill

    October 29, 2014 at 8:24 am #206495
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Correct

    October 29, 2014 at 10:19 pm #206662
    Abi
    Member
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    Thank you so much for your help 🙂

    October 31, 2014 at 7:17 am #206926
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

    October 31, 2014 at 2:20 pm #206987
    francis05
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Hi sir
    I don’t understand why the gain on the existing investment (310-280) have to be reversed in the group profits
    I thought it was supposed to be a credit not a debit
    Will appreciate your help

    October 31, 2014 at 3:03 pm #207000
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Is that reversal not simply reversing out a dab entry so that now we are in the position where we can put through the correct entry?

    October 31, 2014 at 3:37 pm #207007
    francis05
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Thanks
    Yes it could be a reversal of the previous gain in the revaluation of the original investment of 14%
    My problem though is that the revaluation of the original investment to fair value seems to occur in the current year when the control is achieved so it is confusing on how the gain has to be reversed in the group’s profits
    but thanks will read some more

    November 1, 2014 at 6:52 am #207048
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Ok, and if the problem persists, post again

    November 21, 2014 at 1:57 pm #211932
    aishaasad
    Member
    • Topics: 159
    • Replies: 185
    • ☆☆☆

    Hello Sir ,
    I have same problem plz explain i do not understand the reversal

    November 22, 2014 at 9:02 am #212100
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    We any company puts through an entry into the accounting records and it later appears that that entry was incorrect, then it needs to be corrected.

    There are two ways of tackling this.

    By far the easier way is simply to reverse the bad entry and then put through the correct one.

    The more difficult way is to work out what HAS happened, what SHOULD HAVE happened and the put through the entries necessary to get from bad to good

    Ok?

    November 29, 2014 at 1:00 pm #214351
    syn213
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Dear sir, I’d like to ask about requirement no.4, the giving of loan to charity organisation as financial assets.

    As far as I see it’s not mentioned in the question that they are using the FVTPL / FVTOCI to record the loan, and Trailer will likely be holding it til the end plus there will only be principal & interest cashflow.
    Shouldn’t it be accounted for using the amortised cost instead of the FV method used in the model answer?

    Thank you sir.

    November 29, 2014 at 11:15 pm #214548
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Are we still on the Trailer question?

    November 30, 2014 at 8:33 am #214630
    syn213
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Yes sir, requirement no.4.

    Oh dear, I think I’ve missed out something, the initial measurement of all financial assets should be at FV, so the model answer was correct.

    Sorry sir, my mistake.

    November 30, 2014 at 9:56 am #214669
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Well, there you go! I’m very pleased that you found it 🙂

    December 2, 2014 at 4:08 am #215677
    Hien
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Dear Sir I have question on how we evaluate the first investment in Caller. When calculating goodwill, the cash consideration is used as fairvalue of the first investment. However as I understand, the first investment should be recognised as cash consideration plus share of profit after the day Trailer made the first investment.

    Thanks in advance

    December 2, 2014 at 7:48 am #215721
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Without the question in front of me, do I not remember the question actually giving you the fair value of that initial investment as at the date of the second investment?

    December 2, 2014 at 9:52 am #215810
    Hien
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    sorry Sir

    I missed 1 paragraph while reading the question.
    thanks

    December 2, 2014 at 11:23 am #215935
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Ahhh! The moral of that little lesson?

    RTFQ

    Very carefully!

    December 3, 2014 at 2:47 pm #216847
    hiencamnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    Dear sir, pls help me where is my misunderstanding in reversal of impairment in quest 1 June 2013-Trailer.
    I learnt that the asset can not be revalued to carrying amount that is higher than its value would have been if asset had not been impaired originally.
    In the part 5, the total impairment recorded is $12, the revaluation gain calculated base on new value is $32.58. I think that the maximum impairment reversed is $12 give the carrying amount of the asset as at YE2013 is $86 rather than the new value of $105.
    Tks so much.

    December 3, 2014 at 2:56 pm #216853
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sure, we can reverse an impairment, but that reversal is only good up to the point where the asset would have been had we not impaired it.

    But are we not then able to revalue this unimpaired asset?

    Does that do it for you?

    December 3, 2014 at 3:15 pm #216865
    hiencamnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    Means that we then revaluate the unimpairment asset from $86 to$105? And record entry dr NCA/cr reserve (105 – 86)?

    I confuse it because the asset was purchased at $90, and then after 2 years in use it’s revalued at $105? Is it reasonable?

    December 3, 2014 at 3:38 pm #216886
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23303
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Why not? And besides, whoever told you that P2 questions were reasonable? Take the classic example of a group of companies with aggregate $500,000,000 revenue and a share issue on the acquisition of a new subsidiary where the chief accountant doesn’t know how to deal with it. He / she is asking your advice.

    Is that reasonable? Realistic?

    Of course not – but the examiner has to set you questions that will test your knowledge and, invariably, that will involve resolving accounting issues that apparently lie beyond the competencies of CFOs in substantial companies

    Your’s not to reason why. Your’s just to do, or try!

    December 3, 2014 at 3:50 pm #216897
    hiencamnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    ok, I just think that the standard told “the asset can not be revalued to carrying amount that is higher than its value would have been if asset had not been impaired originally”, and we must comply with 😀

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