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- June 7, 2010 at 7:58 am #44504
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[polldaddy poll="3308626"]June 10, 2010 at 1:01 pm #63183I thought it was OK on the whole. I was a bit surprised to see the probability question 1, but was personally very pleased as I’m a maths graduate so found these easy marks.
Some of the written parts I wasn’t that sure what they were getting at, or how the marks would be divided so erred on the side of writing too much rather than too little so may have waffled on too long on these. I felt more time pressure than expected.
Did people work out the market value of the bonds on question 3 (I think)? My gearing remained the same as I left the bonds at par value but felt that I should have tried to evaluate them in order for the gearing to change.
June 10, 2010 at 1:21 pm #63184very difficult paper. I hope 50 marks. I know only Question number 3
dont know on what bases the examiner make the paers, no risk managment, no business valuation, no poper question of WACC.
ahhhhh 🙁
Please God Pass my this paper
June 10, 2010 at 1:28 pm #63185AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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when i first saw the first number..i was very happy..but then…
i think i’m failing..or hope for 50…paper not like past papers format..
June 10, 2010 at 1:29 pm #63186AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Another waste of time – 13 mark question on Expected values…and where are the practice questions in the BPP Kit or in the lecture notes on that one??? Another brilliant example of the ACCA not working with their tuiton providers – nice one!
June 10, 2010 at 1:29 pm #63187cporteus, think you’re reading too much into that part of the question, it was only 5 marks…..MV was 4m.
for the gearing, the co. was completly ungeared before the issue, so went from being ungeared to geared, 4/17June 10, 2010 at 1:29 pm #63188AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I think the exam was OK, but I wasn’t very well prepared.
Q4 was quite abstract. I don’t hope to take much points here.
There were a lot of points for discussions in all the questions. I am not very strong here.
I hope to take 50 marks, but I am not sure at all.
Wish success to everyone 🙂June 10, 2010 at 1:33 pm #63189AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Did nearly all the past papers and the qu’s in the BBP rev book, never have any issues with them always scored well!
Now what was qu 1 & 4 about?? thought the exam was a to much focused on the same areas and did not represent a fair coverage of the F9 content. Calculations that were heavily marked and are not in the revision qus???
Think there will be a lot of students worrying for results day!!!…………..I just hope 2 & 3 scored ok… (they were ok!)June 10, 2010 at 1:34 pm #63190Thought was quite a departure from previous examiners, is he still the same, just wander
June 10, 2010 at 1:41 pm #63191@cporteus said:
I thought it was OK on the whole. I was a bit surprised to see the probability question 1, but was personally very pleased as I’m a maths graduate so found these easy marks.Some of the written parts I wasn’t that sure what they were getting at, or how the marks would be divided so erred on the side of writing too much rather than too little so may have waffled on too long on these. I felt more time pressure than expected.
Did people work out the market value of the bonds on question 3 (I think)? My gearing remained the same as I left the bonds at par value but felt that I should have tried to evaluate them in order for the gearing to change.
I better comment on this while I still remeber some question 🙂
Period 1
The expected cashflow was 10,000 – 500= 9500
period 2
10000
on probabality basis
net cashflow after period 2 was 3900 (i think)
can’t remeber what was the 3rd or 4th part.
how did you do the prob cacultions?q2:
it was my last question (left it in middle 🙁 no time)
trainee errors were not counting for inflation rate mostly..
did not included general inflation in interest payment etc.
included dep.. no included wda instead
fixed cast included 200 of develpments cost etcq3
cost of debt I calculated was IRR 5.21%.
cost of capital – gived 12%
bond market value 4400
capital MV 4.1×10000= 410000
wacc 11.34%.interest cover 2.9 i think
gearing 9.5%q4
what was th q4? 🙂I attempted 3 and half altogether and hopping for 50% 🙂
June 10, 2010 at 1:45 pm #63192you’re q1 EV is totally wrong…didn’t bother reading the rest after that
June 10, 2010 at 1:48 pm #63193how did you do it? ;(
June 10, 2010 at 1:49 pm #63194f9 was not a standard question.it does not help to learn
June 10, 2010 at 1:52 pm #63195AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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its over now, have a nice summer everybody!
June 10, 2010 at 1:52 pm #631961st of all….the question didn’t ask for the expected cash flow at the end of each period but the ending balance, therefore the (500) had to be the opening balance for period 1 and the EV of cash flows at the end of period 1 had to be brought to period 2. can’t remember exactly what closing bal was for period 1 but was something like 2100 positive.
June 10, 2010 at 1:52 pm #63197AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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As smkt said above – I did a lot of prep for this and feel the intention was to confuse examinees rather then test their knowledge! I think Tony Head lost the plot this time!
June 10, 2010 at 1:53 pm #63198the paper was difficult may be no strict marking. hope for the best.. even the question1 and question4 was sucks lolz
June 10, 2010 at 1:56 pm #63199AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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it wasn’t like the past papers.the style and nature of questions were different and it looks like there were too much marks alotted to simple questions AND A FEW MARKS FOR DIFFICULT ONES(DUNNO IF IT’S JUST ME) the topics question areas were not diverse and focused a lot on one syllabus area. i wonder if the examiner was changed. I hope for 50 though. Can’t imagine writing it again…Help me God!!!!!!!
June 10, 2010 at 1:58 pm #63200Expected value / probability question
Write out the possibilities for period 1 three times each, then follow with the possibilities for period 2 once for each.
e.g. possibility 1 = period 1 $9000, then period 2 $3000 (can’t remember figures)
possibility 2 = period 1 $9000, then period 2 $1000, etc so you get 9 possibilities overall.
Work out the probability of each of the nine options by multiplying period 1 probability by period 2 probility (e.g. 30% * 10% = 3% overall).
Work out the outcome of each option, e.g. overall profit or loss.
Add up the probabilities for each of the 3 options that caused the account to be overdrawn.
Add up the 2 probabilities that make the overdraft more than limit.
Hope that makes sense.June 10, 2010 at 2:10 pm #63201AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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what did everyone do for the dividend valuation model where there was going to be no dividend paid for 3 years?
June 10, 2010 at 2:11 pm #63202AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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It was so so so different from the normal pattern… i mean so many marks for stupid things and expected value was like alien to me…. got confused with the CAPM analysis including dividend yield,capital gain n shareholder’s return as it was the last question i was doing and missed it…. on the whole not a very gud paper…. still hoping to clinch that 50 benchmark…. i hate acca examiners…!!!! 😛
June 10, 2010 at 2:13 pm #63203AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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June 10, 2010 at 2:13 pm #63204The overall exam wasnt that tough.. it was easy to score above 50s but i expected to score about 70..
im confused about Q1 part a iii i got it 50% was it right?
in Q2 the market value of debt was it 4400 or was it 4000? i wrote it as 4400 and i got a WACC of 11.55
and a very good luck to all of u for ur results.. i hope all did well =]
June 10, 2010 at 2:13 pm #63205AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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you can not determine the market value of bonds (so take par value) in order to determine the market value of bonds the examiner must provide the average return for same risk bearing securities which would then be used to discount the values
for npv question, its a huge mistake to take the interest rate in calculation cuz in discounting we are effectively deducting interest by applying the discount rate thats why the question started at the start stated ” the risk of this project is of no different than the business” so the project must be discounted at nominal wacc
June 10, 2010 at 2:20 pm #63206AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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a sucks paper for me ==
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