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June 10 Exams POLL Paper F5 was Post your comments here

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA PM Performance Management Forums › June 10 Exams POLL Paper F5 was Post your comments here

  • This topic has 134 replies, 74 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by bereank.
Viewing 25 posts - 76 through 100 (of 135 total)
← 1 2 3 4 5 6 →
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 15, 2010 at 1:37 am #62812
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    top marks to open tuition i can safely say that without this web site i prob would not have had a pray… if i pass these latest 3 ( and i think i will) that will make 5 course passes alll credited to OT… words do not do justice…

    June 15, 2010 at 3:07 am #62813
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Wow… K, so before I read these comments, i thought the paper was great… NOW, I’m not too sure!!!! Eeeek

    June 15, 2010 at 3:09 am #62814
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    @lambyang` said:
    i think that mix and yield variance will 100% got…feel dissappoint…:(
    however,i think f5 this time not very hard..i hope that for 50% also…==

    If there was only one material being used, how did you incorporate mix/yield variances??

    June 15, 2010 at 4:45 am #62815
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    all the questions were good except Q5 .I did’nt touch it because it was not understandable for me .

    June 15, 2010 at 6:10 am #62816
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    i think my question 1 ABC is wrong .
    in traditional method i was calculated Overhead 400000/800 = 500 but i think correct answer was 400000/40000 = 4

    also my ABC part wrong i am doing
    superviser/visit 90000/500 = 180
    planner /hours 70000/40000 = 1.75
    property related/ document 240000/250 = 960
    i think my part 1 was wrong,
    but i dont know about part 2 any one help ?

    June 15, 2010 at 7:27 am #62817
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Can someone please help on question 3? How was the maximum contribution worked out with no $amounts?

    June 15, 2010 at 7:35 am #62818
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    @crazylady511 said:
    Can someone please help on question 3? How was the maximum contribution worked out with no $amounts?

    Question 3
    part 1 my answer was $ 26000
    part 2 shadow price $ 10 and $ 4
    part 3 i dont know

    June 15, 2010 at 7:45 am #62820
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    @navrozkaredia said:
    Question 3
    part 1 my answer was $ 26000
    part 2 shadow price $ 10 and $ 4
    part 3 i dont know

    @navrozkaredia said:
    Question 3
    part 1 my answer was $ 26000
    part 2 shadow price $ 10 and $ 4
    part 3 i dont know

    Just put w=200 to the equation 2w+2L=1200, you shall not use the other equation because is out of the region and you shall get L=400
    can anyone tell me whether marginal cost include variable overhead or not?

    June 15, 2010 at 7:56 am #62821
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    @paullu618 said:
    Just put w=200 to the equation 2w+2L=1200, you shall not use the other equation because is out of the region and you shall get L=400
    can anyone tell me whether marginal cost include variable overhead or not?

    this is part 4 and my part $ answer is 25600

    June 15, 2010 at 7:58 am #62822
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    i think my question 1 ABC is wrong .
    in traditional method i was calculated Overhead 400000/800 = 500 but i think correct answer was 400000/40000 = 4

    also my ABC part wrong i am doing
    superviser/visit 90000/500 = 180
    planner /hours 70000/40000 = 1.75
    property related/ document 240000/250 = 960
    i think my part 1 was wrong,
    but i dont know about part 2 any one help ?

    June 15, 2010 at 8:27 am #62823
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    @paullu618 said:
    Just put w=200 to the equation 2w+2L=1200, you shall not use the other equation because is out of the region and you shall get L=400
    can anyone tell me whether marginal cost include variable overhead or not?

    I think you should use the contribution line on the diagram.
    Then the Optimal point will become C if W is reduce to 200
    Then use the 2 equation:
    W<400
    2w+2L=1200
    then solve to get the anwer.

    If I’m not wrong.
    Overwhole the paper was ok and need a good time management.

    June 15, 2010 at 9:09 am #62824
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆

    @waqassahmedd said:
    shorty20 said 2 hours, 16 minutes ago:
    @keeva said:
    Hi! I think the exam was pretty easy… unfortunately, I didn’t have enough time to study, but I hope to pass..
    Ref. shadow pricing — I hope I remember correctly the figures:
    7W+5L = 3500
    2W+2L = 1201 (if I calculate it for tailor’s time)
    Solve this, and obtain a shadow price of $4. Together with the normal rate of $1.5 it gives a total of $5.5, more in comparison with the tailor’s offer….so…accept the offer! This was my answer….

    Omg, i got the shadow price being $4. as well, but i said don’t accept the offer because the normal rate times 3 which was $4.50 was more than the amount mgmt was willing to pay for an extra unit



    I DID THE SAME THING U DID i.e, REJECT THE OFFER… but i did in a different way. i calculated the total cost for overtime. then i re-calcultated the contribution by adding extra hours. then i deducted the OLD contribution from the new one and the extra contribution was a little less then the costs incurred for overtime. I GUESS THIS WAS RIGHT TOO… 🙂

    I did the exact same thing! Lets hope its right!

    June 15, 2010 at 9:45 am #62825
    acltang72
    Member
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 183
    • ☆☆☆

    I don’t understand how people managed to get 2 shadow prices. Shadow price is the additional contribution earned from one additional unit of SCARCE resource. The scarce resource was the tailor time. For example you can’t possibly use up the maximum fabric of 240 L suits because tailor time limits production to 200 L suits. (There is a slack of fabric so therefore no shadow price as it’s not a scarce resource). Could be wrong, but that’s what I did.

    Also that contract offer of pay at 3 times should have been rejected. Calculate the contribution less the labour costs of the original and new contract and you should find that the new contract generates less contribution.

    The question about the manager manipulating the company records was about budgetary bias and slack. Well that’s what I assumed. I gave a definition and an example.

    One thing I remember being stuck on was how can there possibly be 150 staff days in a quarter when there are only 90 days in a quarter (3 months x 30)……. I ignored the staff days and just used the normal days. But I’m sure I won’t lose many marks if its wrong. I’m pretty sure I got target 2 and 3 right. For target 2 I got NIL bonus for quarter 1 only, and NIL bonus for quarter 1 and 2.

    For the staff lateness’ I mentioned that it may not be controllable as the lateness was at its greatest during quarter 2 and 3. Quarter 2 and 3 was during Autumn and Winter seasons, where traffic, train delays & staff illness are at it’s worst due to poor weather, therefore uncontrollable.

    Hope for 50!

    June 15, 2010 at 1:34 pm #62826
    arleneld
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 28
    • ☆

    Does anyone have all the answers ?

    June 15, 2010 at 3:39 pm #62827
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 26
    • ☆

    @saad0090 said:
    my shadow prices wer 24 and 8!

    for materials, making w was more benificial as it was miking more cntribution per unit of material i.e 48/2 > 40/2, so more w shud b produced. by 1 unit of material, 0.5 w could b manudactured, giving a contributn of 24 i.e 48 x 0.5. so shadw price of material is 24.

    for labor, making L was more benificial as contributn per limiting factr was higher fr L i.e 40/5 > 48/7. by 1 hour of labour, additional 0.2 units of l could b produced giving a contributn of 8 i.e 40 x 0.2! so shadw price of labur is 8!

    i think detaild calculatn was req fr 6 marks, and i hope my is correct!

    for part c, 300 additional hours wer required!

    any1 plz cup up with a logical arguemnt why this isnt correct???

    June 15, 2010 at 4:36 pm #62828
    ACCA crazy
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Question paper has come on ACCA website.

    June 15, 2010 at 4:48 pm #62829
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    @acltang72

    There was no slack, both constraints were binding.
    7×250 + 5×350 = 3500 = hours available
    2×250 + 2×350 = 1200 = meters available

    So there were two shadow prices.

    June 15, 2010 at 6:17 pm #62830
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    paula13 said 1 hour, 26 minutes ago:
    @acltang72

    There was no slack, both constraints were binding.
    7×250 + 5×350 = 3500 = hours available
    2×250 + 2×350 = 1200 = meters available

    So there were two shadow prices.



    you are right… but i don’t think those calculations were needed. 🙂

    June 15, 2010 at 8:56 pm #62831
    passfirsttime
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Glad to see it, but a bit chilling!!!
    Anyone know when the model answers will come up?
    Or will that have to wait until after the result?

    blockquote> @manjula93 said:
    Question paper has come on ACCA website.

    June 15, 2010 at 8:56 pm #62832
    passfirsttime
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Glad to see it, but a bit chilling!!!
    Anyone know when the model answers will come up?
    Or will that have to wait until after the result?

    blockquote> @manjula93 said:
    Question paper has come on ACCA website.

    June 15, 2010 at 9:07 pm #62833
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    @saad0090 said:
    any1 plz cup up with a logical arguemnt why this isnt correct???

    I think that you have got the contibution for each constraint mixed up- they appear to have been calculated the wrong way round-check the paper out
    on ACCA site

    June 16, 2010 at 8:27 am #62834
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    i think my question 1 ABC is wrong .
    in traditional method i was calculated Overhead 400000/800 = 500 but i think correct answer was 400000/40000 = 4

    also my ABC part wrong i am doing
    superviser/visit 90000/500 = 180
    planner /hours 70000/40000 = 1.75
    property related/ document 240000/250 = 960
    i think my part 1 was wrong,
    but i dont know about part 2 any one help ?

    June 16, 2010 at 11:31 am #62835
    arleneld
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 28
    • ☆

    @navrozkaredia said:
    i think my question 1 ABC is wrong .
    in traditional method i was calculated Overhead 400000/800 = 500 but i think correct answer was 400000/40000 = 4

    also my ABC part wrong i am doing
    superviser/visit 90000/500 = 180
    planner /hours 70000/40000 = 1.75
    property related/ document 240000/250 = 960
    i think my part 1 was wrong,
    but i dont know about part 2 any one help ?

    I just did it as it said on the paper:
    90,000/500
    70,000/250
    240,000/40,000
    but have no idea if that is correct ??

    June 16, 2010 at 11:38 am #62836
    arleneld
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 28
    • ☆

    For the first question, I think (cant quite remember exactly…)
    a) using labour hours

    GL 3500+4500+3000 = $10260
    EX 8000+7500+5000 = $20500

    b) using ABC
    3500+4500+2260 = $10260
    8000+7500+5480 = $20980

    Unfortunatly I have lost 10 whole marks in the 2nd section – I had no idea…. 🙁
    What did everyone else write in c and d ?
    (Just to make me feel worse…)
    I struggled with the theory all the way through, and my calculations were not perfect, I think Im looking at 45%
    Im not too despondant though, as I did teach myself!

    June 16, 2010 at 11:44 am #62837
    arleneld
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 28
    • ☆

    @acltang72 said:
    I don’t understand how people managed to get 2 shadow prices. Shadow price is the additional contribution earned from one additional unit of SCARCE resource. The scarce resource was the tailor time. For example you can’t possibly use up the maximum fabric of 240 L suits because tailor time limits production to 200 L suits. (There is a slack of fabric so therefore no shadow price as it’s not a scarce resource). Could be wrong, but that’s what I did.

    Also that contract offer of pay at 3 times should have been rejected. Calculate the contribution less the labour costs of the original and new contract and you should find that the new contract generates less contribution.

    The question about the manager manipulating the company records was about budgetary bias and slack. Well that’s what I assumed. I gave a definition and an example.

    One thing I remember being stuck on was how can there possibly be 150 staff days in a quarter when there are only 90 days in a quarter (3 months x 30)……. I ignored the staff days and just used the normal days. But I’m sure I won’t lose many marks if its wrong. I’m pretty sure I got target 2 and 3 right. For target 2 I got NIL bonus for quarter 1 only, and NIL bonus for quarter 1 and 2.

    For the staff lateness’ I mentioned that it may not be controllable as the lateness was at its greatest during quarter 2 and 3. Quarter 2 and 3 was during Autumn and Winter seasons, where traffic, train delays & staff illness are at it’s worst due to poor weather, therefore uncontrollable.

    Hope for 50!

    I was a bit confused about the 450 staff days, but then I though there will be several members of staff – 5 ?
    5*90 = 450

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