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Jun 2013 Q4

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Jun 2013 Q4

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • June 1, 2014 at 2:36 am #172242
    zhaoyunyi
    Member
    • Topics: 21
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    In part (a), I cannot understand the equation it used to calculate the PV of company value. Could you please explain it?
    Why we cannot use 25*1.04/(0.09-0.04)*0.772 ?
    Thanks!

    June 1, 2014 at 1:04 pm #172333
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Normally we use Do(1+g)/(Re-g)

    This assumes that Do is the current dividend – so Do(1+g) is the dividend in 1 years time.
    It gives a market value now.

    What you want to do is fine, except that 25×1.04 will be the dividend in 4 years time (25 in 3 years time, inflated for a year). So using that in the formula will give a PV in 3 years time – discount for three years and you get a PV now. That is what you want to do.
    The problem is that it would not be including the dividend of 25 in 3 years time.
    So….by all means do what you have typed, but then add 25 x 0.772 (the present value of the dividend in 3 years). Then you will get the same answer as the examiner.

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