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Job Costing Question (BPP Ch8 P164 Q4)

Forums › FIA Forums › MA1 Management Information Forums › Job Costing Question (BPP Ch8 P164 Q4)

  • This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by kirit.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • March 18, 2017 at 11:25 am #378616
    kirit
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    A firm uses job costing. 3 jobs in a period are worked as follows:

    Job BA
    OWIP $22760
    DM for the period $4620
    DL $12,125

    Job DC
    OWIP $3190
    DM $11660
    DL $10520

    Job FE
    OWIP $0
    DM $14335
    DL $7695

    OH are absorbed at 40% of Prime cost in each period.
    Job DC & FE remained incomplete at the end of each period

    What is CWIP value ?

    Job BA- already completed

    Total Prime Cost for Job DC+FE = $44210
    DC=$11660+$10520 =$22180
    FE= $14335 + $7695 = $22030

    $44210*0.4= $17684

    I went wrong here.

    The answer says:
    ($11660+$10520+$14335 + $7695) * 1.4

    Why have they multiplied by 1.4 and not 0.4 please ?

    Thanks

    March 18, 2017 at 6:06 pm #378644
    secondstar
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 220
    • ☆☆☆

    Its same as you’ve calculated. Just a bit mathematics.

    $44210(100%) + $44210*40% = $44210*140% or $44210*1.4

    The $44210 amount is 100% with which a further 40% of the same amount is added. Meaning that the total resulting sum is 140% of $44210.

    You were 100% right in your approach. All you had to do was to simply match your answer with that of the book.

    Hope it helped you.

    May 24, 2017 at 11:19 am #387809
    kirit
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    Hello,

    I need your help please. I’m going over this question again. Thanks.

    $44210 (100%) What does this represent please ?
    Does it represent the 100% completed job BA ?

    May 24, 2017 at 12:40 pm #387837
    kirit
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    100% or 1 ($44210)
    It’s the total DL + DM isn’t it ? The prime cost ?

    May 24, 2017 at 7:16 pm #387914
    secondstar
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 220
    • ☆☆☆

    As i’ve said earlier, there’s some maths in these type of questions. All you need to do is understand the principle and practice more questions to get a good grip.

    Whenever we are calculating a % of any amount, the base (amount on which on which a certain % is to be calculated) is always 100%. For e.g. Prime Cost in this question.
    I’m calling it ‘base’, otherwise its officially called ‘Net Amount’.

    Prime Cost = Base amount = $44,210 (100%)
    Because the OH is to be calculated on this amount.
    So,
    Overheads = $44,210*40% = $17,684

    The resulting amount, which is the sum of both amounts is Gross amount. For e.g. the CWIP in this question.

    CWIP = Gross amount = $44,210+$17,684 = $61,894

    May 24, 2017 at 7:35 pm #387915
    secondstar
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 220
    • ☆☆☆

    Now, i’m gonna explain the mathematics a bit more.

    CWIP = 44,210 + 44,210*40%
    Since, 44,210 is 100%, so
    CWIP = 44,210*100% + 44,210*40%

    Now, you can see that the same amount is multiplied with 2 different percentages. We can simply use the sum of both % amount i.e 140%

    CWIP = 44,210*140%
    As, 140% = 1.4, so
    CWIP = 44,210*1.4 = 61,894

    May 25, 2017 at 11:52 am #388001
    kirit
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    Thank you.
    Thank you for the full explanation as well. Gratefully appreciated.

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