• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

Save 20% on ACCA & CIMA Books

Interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>

J08 Mercury Training (b)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › J08 Mercury Training (b)

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 27, 2016 at 2:13 am #302260
    AvatarQ
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    The part (b) uses dividend valustion model to calculate the upper range of issue prices. It involves three possible earnings rates.
    (1) the historical earnings growth rate of 12%: I don’t know why it is rejected because of being greater than cost of equity capital and why it is compared to Ke rather than WACC
    (2) the weighted anticipated growth rate of 5.34%: does it mean the growth rate of dividend is equal to the growth rate of earnings.

    February 27, 2016 at 8:47 am #302294
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    For (1) remember that in theory the market value is determined using the dividend valuation model. If you were to put growth as 12% in the dividend valuation formula, then if Re (cost of equity) is lower than 12% then it isn’t going to work 🙂

    For (2) in the long-term, dividend growth should depend on earnings growth because in the long-term it is the level of earnings that determines the level of dividends.

    February 28, 2016 at 1:53 am #302388
    AvatarQ
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Oh,I understand it. Because it is the growth of earnings that determines the growth of dividend, g in the DVM is 12%. And P0=D0(1+g)/(Ke-g), to ensure P0 >0, (Ke-g)must be positive, so Ke >g.
    Thanks! John, you help me a lot.

    February 28, 2016 at 9:42 am #302421
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • TEDI on IAS 16 Property, plant and equipment – Initial Recognition – CIMA F1 Financial Reporting
  • ChanNV on Framework – measurement – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • ChanNV on IASB Conceptual Framework – Introduction – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • Konstantinos43 on Financial Performance Measurement – Liquidity Measures – ACCA Management Accounting (MA)
  • Hirak.5 on ACCA TX-UK FA2025 Chapter 3 Property Income and Investments – Individuals

Copyright © 2026 · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Privacy Policy · Cookie settings · Comments · Log in