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- July 3, 2017 at 7:41 am #394573
Source: ACCA F3 Kaplan Exam Kit, Question 67
In the year ended 30 September 20X8, Fauntleroy had sales of $7,000,000. Year end
receivables amounted to 5% of annual sales. Fauntleroy wishes to maintain the allowance
for receivables at 4% of receivables and as a result discovers that the allowance is 20%
higher than at the previous year end.
During the year irrecoverable debts amounting to $3,200 were written off and debts
amounting to $450 and previously written off were recovered.
What is the irrecoverable debt expense for the year?
A $5,083
B $5,550
C $5,583
D $16,750First part of the answer:
Year end receivables 5% × $7,000,000 = $350,000
Year end allowance for receivables 4% × $350,000 = $14,000
Allowance at start of year 100/120 × $14,000 = $11,667
Increase in allowance = $2,333Dear tutor,
In the answer above, I’m confused by the calculation of general allowance for receivables. In theory it is stated that General allowance should be calculated after the Receivables are adjusted for Specific Allowance. In our case we have Specific Allowance during the year of 3,200. Shouldn’t we calculate the year end General Allowance as:
(350,000 – 3200)*4% = 13,872 ?
Thank you in advance for you reply.
July 3, 2017 at 8:47 am #394581The 3,200 is not a specific allowance – it is irrecoverable debts that were written off during the year.
Because they had been written off during the year, the year end receivables of 350,000 are already after removing the 3,200.Have you watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F3 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
July 3, 2017 at 9:03 am #394585Oh, I can see now. Loosing attention 🙂
I will surely watch your lectures, thank you so much!
July 3, 2017 at 9:06 am #394584Oh, I see. Just too many problems solved for today. Loosing attention 🙂
I will surely watch your lectures sir, thank you so much!
July 3, 2017 at 4:54 pm #394634You are welcome 🙂
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