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IRR

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › IRR

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 15, 2020 at 1:24 pm #576884
    lokeshdh00
    Participant
    • Topics: 132
    • Replies: 129
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi sir, Hope you are Well.
    I was solving the questionin MCQ at opentution , the question no. was 4.

    I calculated NPV at 12% as per earlier question requirement( Q1 and 2 are have same data) . so, then for IRR i calculated at 15 % intrest rate. I got following values.
    12% NPV = 33830
    15% NPV = 15,420

    and the IRR comes to be – 12% + 33820/18410 x 5% = 21.19 % which is not in question.

    I seen the solution and there the second npv value was calculated at 20 %. and npv value was in negative.

    So, should i always calculate second npv at a intrest rate that the npv value will always negative ? Also, whats the logic behind that ?

    July 15, 2020 at 3:28 pm #576895
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I think you mean question 2 (not question 4).

    Your workings are wrong, it should be 12% + ((33,820 / 18,410) x 3%) = 17.51% (which is 18% to the nearest %).

    Any IRR calculated this way will only be approximate because the relationship is not linear. Having one positive and one negative NPV does give a better approximation but there is no need to waste time doing a third NPV in the exam (provided that you have not made ridiculous guesses. For example, because the NPV at 12% is so high, 13% would have been a silly guess 🙂 )

    I do explain this in my free lectures. (The lectures are a complete free course for Paper MA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well).

    If you get a question like this, then the best to choose for the ‘second guess’ is the highest of the available answers (so in this case 20%). The reason is that unless 20% turns out to be the IRR (which is possible but unlikely) then the answer must end up being lower than 20% (because the other choices are less than 20%) and you will automatically have ended up with one +’ve and one -‘ve NPV 🙂

    April 19, 2021 at 12:51 pm #618205
    sejazkhan
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    A machine has an investment cost of $60,000/- at time 0. The present value (at time 0) of the expected net cash inflows from the machine over its useful life are:
    Discount rate. PV of cash inflows
    10%. $64,600/-
    15%. $58,200/-
    20%. $52,100/-
    What is the internal rate of return of the machine investment?
    1) below 10%
    2) between 10% and 15%
    3) between 15% and 20%
    4) over 20%

    Correct answer js between 10-15% (workings are for 10 to 15%)

    My question is when i did workings for 15 and 20 % it shows me over 20% why is this answer not correct

    April 19, 2021 at 2:01 pm #618218
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I do not know what working you were doing, because not workings are needed!

    At 10% the PV of the inflows is greater than the cost of $60,000 and therefore the NPV is positive.
    At 15% the PV is less than the cost and therefore the NPV is negative.

    The IRR is when the NPV is zero, and so the IRR must be between 10% and 15%.

    (At 20% the NPV is even more negative than at 15% and so the IRR cannot possibly be over 20%.)

    Have you watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper MA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

    April 20, 2021 at 9:42 am #618283
    sejazkhan
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Thanks alot it makes more sense to me now

    April 20, 2021 at 4:17 pm #618311
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • The topic ‘IRR’ is closed to new replies.

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