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IRR

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › IRR

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • February 1, 2015 at 6:18 am #224566
    fahad
    Member
    • Topics: 24
    • Replies: 114
    • ☆☆

    if a project has two IRRs 10% and 25% ,how come cost of capital greater than 25 % will give positive NPV ?

    February 1, 2015 at 8:17 am #224584
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54753
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The IRR is not really a rate of return at all – it is simply the rate of interest when the NPV is zero.

    Most times we are dealing with investments which require an initial outflow followed by inflows and for these, the greater the interest the lower the NPV – at low rates it is positive and at high rates it is negative.

    However, if there was the situation where there was an initial inflow followed by outflows, then it would be the other way round – at low rates of interest the NPV would be negative and at high rates it would be positive.

    Multiple IRR’s can happen (but don’t always happen – it depends on the amount of the flows) when you have outlaws, then inflows, then outflows. It is effectively a combination of the two situations above. So for some ranges of rates of interest, higher interest means lower NPV and for other ranges of rates of interest, higher interest means higher NPV.
    That is what is happening in the example you describe.

    In the exam you cannot be expected to calculate IRR’s in this situation. All that can be expected is that you can state it as one of the problems with IRR’s in a written part of a question.

    February 1, 2015 at 3:38 pm #224663
    fahad
    Member
    • Topics: 24
    • Replies: 114
    • ☆☆

    oh makes sense now , thanks

    February 1, 2015 at 5:22 pm #224712
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54753
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome – I am pleased that it makes sense 🙂

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