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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Investment Property IAS40
Please assist. I can not get this part of the standard.
A property interest that is held by a lessee under an operating lease may be classified and accounted for as an investment property, if and only if the property otherwise meet the definition of an investment property and the lessee uses IAS 40 fail value model. A property interest held under a lease and classified as an investment property shall be accounted as if it were a finance lease.
I could not understand the interrelation of finance lease, operating lease and investment property. It seems very mixed for me.
Can you, please, explain this description in more available form?
Thank you!
Even though it may appear to be an operating lease, if the lessee has sublet it and is holding it for the long term, then it should be treated as a finance lease
Dear Mike,
Thank you!
So clear and simple:)
You’re welcome
Hey Baker – it didn’t work for me! There used to be a game show on UK television where the game show host would say “Rearrange the following words into a well known phrase or saying”
That was my initial reaction when I read your post!
:-))
