In BPP textbook, the following was mentioned:
''An asset held by an entity as a right-of-use asset under IFRS16 and leased out under an operating lease is treated as an investment property''
Can anyone please clarify this?
ACCA Forums
FRInvestment property and Lease
This concerns the subsequent measurement of right-of-use asset:
Under IFRS 16, a right-of-use asset is generally measured using the cost model (i.e. depreciated and any impairment losses recognised).
IFRS permits the revaluation model if the right-of-use asset relates to a class of PPE (usually property) to which the entity applies the revaluation model.
If a right-of-use asset meets the definition of an investment property, and the entity has other investment properties, the entity must apply the same model to the right-of-use asset as to other investment properties (cost or fair value model).
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