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Investment Appraisal

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Investment Appraisal

  • This topic has 3 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by IAW3005.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • March 29, 2021 at 7:56 pm #615473
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello John

    -Sudan Co wishes to undertake a project requiring an investment of $732,000 which will
    generate equal annual inflows of $146,400 in perpetuity.
    If the first inflow from the investment is a year after the initial investment, what is the
    IRR of the project?

    1. The answer is 20%
    2. Please help me with this question. I have no idea how to tackle it. The workings in the revision kit is not that simple to understand.

    Thanks

    March 30, 2021 at 8:30 am #615491
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The discount factor for a perpetuity is 1/r

    Therefore 146,400 x 1/r = 732,000

    So r = 146,400/732,000 = 0.2 or 20%

    It will help you to watch the Paper MA lectures on interest and on investment appraisal.

    July 5, 2024 at 5:00 pm #707855
    Sjvp
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    (If the first inflow from the investment is a year after the initial investment) what is mean by this??? Is it an indication of delayed perpetuity???

    July 5, 2024 at 9:03 pm #707860
    IAW3005
    Moderator
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1603
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No, it means that the cash flows from the investment start one year after the initial outlay.

    This is not necessarily an indication of a delayed perpetuity.

    A delayed perpetuity specifically refers to a perpetuity where the first payment starts after a certain period of delay. In this context, it simply means that the cash inflows begin one year after the initial investment.

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