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Investment Appraisal

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Investment Appraisal

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 9, 2021 at 8:13 am #605318
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello John,

    Machine 1
    Cost = $480,000
    Lifetime= 4 Years
    Scrap Value =$ 60000
    Running costs = $72000

    Machine 2
    Cost = $540000
    Lifetime= 3 Years
    Scrap Value =$ 120,000
    Running costs = $47000

    – The EAC calculation assumes the capabilities of Machine 1 & 2 are identical.

    1. Could you please explain how the statement is correct?
    – The EAC is used when we replace identical asset; meaning that that capabilities are the same which is not the case for machine 1 & 2

    Thanks

    January 9, 2021 at 10:31 am #605354
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Assuming that the capabilities of the two machines are identical simply means that the production (and therefore the sales revenue) will be the same whichever machine we choose.

    Therefore we make the decision based simply on the costs in the normal way for assets replacement decisions.

    I assume that you have watched my free lectures on asset replacement decisions?

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