Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Investment appraisal
- This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
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- July 5, 2019 at 7:23 am #521919
In the following question, I simply calculated present value of perpetuity by plugging in the values 1500 and 6% in the formula: A/r. Hence 1500/6% was my answer, but it was incorrect. Also, the statement ” with the first receipt starting in 3 years’ time” seems confusing and I probably don’t understand what is implied by this statement.
Question: An investment will produce an annual return of $1500 in perpetuity with the first receipt starting in 3 years’ time.
What is the present value of this perpetuity discounted at 6%?July 5, 2019 at 8:57 am #521943The discount factor for a perpetuity is 1/r, but applies to a perpetuity that starts in 1 years time.
If the perpetuity starts in 3 years time, then the discount factor is 1/r minus the annuity factor for 2 years.
When you have calculated the discount factor, then to get the annual return you need to divide $1,500 by this discount factor.
This is explained in my free lectures on investment appraisal. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper MA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
July 6, 2019 at 6:00 am #522022I think we discount it back for two years using “present value” table!
July 7, 2019 at 10:05 am #522077salardehbashi: Please do not answer in this forum because it is the Ask the Tutor Forum 🙂
You can also do what you suggest and you will get exactly the same answer (as I explain in my free lectures).
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