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Intragroup Trading

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Intragroup Trading

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 26, 2017 at 4:36 am #394071
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Question:
    “After the acquisition Sentinel sold goods to Prodigal for $40 million. These goods had cost Sentinel $30 million, $12 million of the goods sold remained in Prodigal’s closing inventory.”

    The answer is a 3000 addition to cost of sales and a 3000 addition to retained earnings.
    I am hopelessly lost with this. Can you explain?

    Now, i feel that with every question including an intragroup trading, i get so lost and never get it right. Is there a simple explanation for this concept that i am just not getting? Or is there a relevant lecture that you could point me at (i have listened to all previously)?

    Thanks in advance

    June 26, 2017 at 4:52 am #394072
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “The answer is a 3000 addition to cost of sales and a 3000 addition to retained earnings.”

    No wonder you’re lost! The answer is, in fact “The answer is a 3000 addition to cost of sales and a 3000 DEDUCTION FROM retained earnings.”

    What are you stuck with?

    (a) The calculation of $3,000 or

    (b) Why we add to cost of sales and deduct from retained earnings?

    Let me know and I’ll get back to you

    June 28, 2017 at 8:36 am #394249
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Over 2 days and no response?

    I’m closing the thread

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • The topic ‘Intragroup Trading’ is closed to new replies.

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