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in consolidation, for intra company elimination, if ” the company has positive bank balance” then we just eliminate accordingly as Dr: Trade payables / Cr: Trade receivables,
but what will happen if it said the company has bank overdraft?
thanks!
I am really, really very sorry! I simply cannot understand your question and where you have foreseen a problem. Why are we not still Dr Payables and Cr Receivables?
Does it really matter whether there is a +ve or -ve balance at the bank? Or whether the TNCA has been written down to zero, or the depreciation policy is reducing balance, or the price of fish has gone up since last year?
Where have you foreseen a problem?
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