Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Interpretation – Futures
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- May 30, 2014 at 11:29 pm #172028
Dear Tutor,
Can you help please?
QUESTION
TODAY
LIBOR 6.5%
Futures 93.20On the date of Investment, what will be the hedge result using futures if:
a) Interest rates fall by 1% – Futures prices move by 0.85%
b) Interest rates rise by 2% – Futures prices move by 1.9%Solution A
LIBOR will now be 5.5%
Futures will be (93.20 + 0.85%) = 94.05Solution B
LIBOR will now be 8.5%
Futures will be (93.20 – 1.90%) = 91.30MY UNDERSTANDING (i.e. My Solution)
The question said futures moved by % (percentage), hence not an absolute figure as used in the solution above. So I had:Solution A
LIBOR will now be 5.5%
Futures will be (93.20 + 0.85% x 93.2) = 93.99Solution B
LIBOR will now be 8.5%
Futures will be (93.20 – 1.90% x 93.2) = 91.43Is my interpretation of the % correct? And if so, should i just state my assumption/interpretation in the exam and I get my marks?
Thanks
May 31, 2014 at 12:05 am #172032Had a rethink just now and hink i figured it out.
Taking Question A for example
Futures of 93.20 is actually 6.8%
So if LIBOR falls, Futures will go up. To reflect the Futures increase, then the Interest of 0.85% must reduce the 6.8% above (i.e 6.8% – 0.85% = 5.95%) which is equivalent of 94.05 Futures.
I understand the concept but the way it was worded that futures moved by 0.85% was what confused me initially.
Hope I got it now?.
May 31, 2014 at 9:35 am #172073Yes – you have got it now OK 🙂
May 31, 2014 at 9:43 am #172075Great! and thanks.
May 31, 2014 at 11:43 am #172100You are welcome 🙂
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.