This may be a silly question but I'm doing question 84 in bpp revision guide. I won't write out the question but I'm trying to calculate the saving a company makes on interest.
In the question if a factor pays advance for receivables the interest rate on the advance would be 2% higher then the 7% the company currently pays on overdrafts.
The answer calculates 2% of the advance and uses it as as cost rather then a saving.
I can't understand why it would cost us 2% on money we are receiving from the factor in advance.
Surely we are saving 7% that we would have had to pay if we didn't have the money in advance.
I'm obviously missing something.
Thank you in advance.
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
Interest rates
You are missing something :-)
By giving us money in advance the factor is giving us money before it has actually been collected from the customer - so they are lending us money and therefore will charge us interest. They will charge 9% interest - 2% more than we pay in overdraft interest.
? I see, can't believe I didn't get that. Makes sense now.
You are welcome :-)
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