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Interest rate risk management TITANS FC

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Interest rate risk management TITANS FC

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 6, 2016 at 3:26 pm #342558
    Ibrahim
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 79
    • ☆☆

    Hello Mr John, please refer to the p4 technical article on the above subject, i want to know why in the article, close out hedge (5.53-6.21)/0.01* why it is not divided by 400 as suggested in your lectures instead it was divided by 0.01
    Thanks

    October 7, 2016 at 1:52 am #342589
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54759
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because they have used ticks.

    I do explain ticks in my lectures but as I also say there is no need to use ticks – that is up to you. (I never bother with ticks 🙂 )

    October 7, 2016 at 2:39 pm #342634
    Ibrahim
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 79
    • ☆☆

    i am good to go now. thanks

    October 8, 2016 at 2:00 am #342672
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54759
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
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