Interest rate risk management

Sir, during your lecture on FRA, you said that the difference between the actual interest rate and the agreed rate is paid at the start of the loan because the bank already knows what the actual interest rate is going to be.

My question then is, if so, why will the bank then quote a rate that will end up making them pay you the difference when, in actual fact, they should be gaining? Is there any motivating factor for the bank in doing so?

My thinking is that, since they know what the actual rate is going to be, they should just tell that by time you will need the loan, this or that will be the rate. Or better still, they should be quoting a rate that will make you rather pay them a difference rather than they paying you because they already know what the actual rate will be and besides, that will be best for them.

Many thanks in advance.