Individual capital gain

The text book question: "Husband transfer his entire shares (20,000) to his wife on 05 May 2019, on that date the shares were valued £64,000.He originally bought the on 21 June 2016 for £48,000. Share are in an unquoted trading company. Wife sold the share on 7 July 2019 for £70,000." MY QUESTION: I understand this in no gain/loss transfer. However, when wife sell the shares why she is not entile to investors relief? I would thought because the shares were bought by husband more than three years ago, and are in the unquoted trading company, it should be. Many thanks Anna